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I am a shareholder in a foreign private company which are not held in an account/brokerage. Should I file FBAR?
I've been reading instructions for FBAR and form 8938, and there seems to be a distinction between an asset and an account. Until last year, my shares have been managed in Carta as "exercised option grants" but are otherwise not held in an account - I don't have an account number - and because it's a private company, I can't sell the shares unless a quialified event occurs. This can only be done during rounds of investment, or if the company is sold or goes public. Does this mean this is an asset I don't have signature authority over?
The value of the shares according to 409a valuation is enough to require filing form 8938 (because it's an asset reportable on that form), and thus also enough to require a FBAR _if_ it is required. But _should_ I be filing FBAR for an asset that's not an account?