Can a Sole Proprietor have a Cost Basis in his own (Traditional) Solo 401 K?

Can a Sole Proprietor who makes an (after tax) Profit Sharing Contribution to his own traditional Solo 401 K account, but does not claim it as a personal deduction (because he already has a zero tax liability in the current year) use it reduce the taxable amount of a future In Plan Roth Conversion (much as one could if they had made After Tax Contributions to a Traditional IRA and then later did a Conversion to a Roth IRA)?  If so, how would one report that to the IRS (e.g. for the IRA analogy you would use Form 8606).  Any thoughts or guidance would be appreciated.