I visited the IRS webpage your link goes to. There, they do appear to imply that you only have an interest in a foreign asset if income or losses from it would have to be reported on your tax return. The implication is that if you don't own the asset but merely have signing authority on behalf of someone else, i.e. as a PoA, i.e. you don't earn any income from it, you don't have to file an 8938. However, as I stated in my question, in the IRS instructions for Form 8938, page 6, they clearly state that "you have an interest" whether you would have to report income or losses from the foreign asset on your tax return, or not. Since the IRS on the page you referred me to appears to be contradicting page 6 of the IRS Form 8938 instruction document, I remain at a loss as to what to do.
Your answer is helpful as I had not seen a page where the IRS describes what it sees as the difference between the IRS 8938 and Treasury's FBAR. I'll refer them to that page if I don't file an 8938 and I find an IRS auditor at my door. Thank you.
