Thanks for the tip, I went to Vanguard web site and I see the page explaining the 2 numbers - they say "To calculate the foreign source income"....(multiply percentage by 1a). Then they say "To calculate the Qualified Foreign Dividend Income"....(multiply percentage by 1a)
So Question #1 - TT asks for "How much of this income was from foreign countries?". If that is just the "Foreign source income percentage %" times 1a, why is the second percentage, "Foreign source qualified dividend %", even offered? (Unless it is used in some scenario I am not presented with in my tax calculations?)
Question #2 - to answer the TT question "How much of this income was from foreign countries?", is the answer "Foreign source income percentage %" x 1a?
