Yes, I read and followed that section, but that doesn't seem to apply to us. She did not receive a 1098, I am the only one that received one. The next section down says, "Similarly, if you're the payer of record on a mortgage on which there are other borrowers entitled to a deduction for the interest shown on the Form 1098 you received, deduct only your share of the interest on Schedule A (Form 1040), line 8a. Let each of the other borrowers know what his or her share is."
This would seem to imply that there is no set and required division, and that it is up to the payer of record to communicate and define share among the other borrowers. That's part of why I asked if there was a more specific and defined section of the tax code that covers this information. These two paragraphs seem somewhat ambiguous and open to interpretation. I'm not saying you're incorrect, I'm saying I'd like a more specific definition in writing of what is and is not allowed, and how share is defined. For starters, if we are paying the mortgage and other bills with comingled funds, how can you readily define and prove who paid what? Was it my money or hers that paid the mortgage? Did she pay for the groceries or did I? As written, this seems like a gray area, and I'd like to better understand the boundaries.
