Hello. I have a question and I hope you can help me as well. Does the IRS explain anywhere about why it has to be a different lender in order to deduct the remaining points from the prior mortgage loan? I can’t figure out how the lender would be relevant as the fees and process is all the same as the prior mortgage is paid off and replaced with a new mortgage. The lender is irrelevant in all cases of refinancing. I’m thinking that the IRS may be referring to a case where the same mortgage is streamlined with the same lender resulting in the same actual account remaining in effect, not a paid off mortgage replaced with a new mortgage.
Thanks in advance for the help!
