"So if you qualify to take the SEC179 deduction on your commercial real estate and actually take it, then you are effectively reducing your cost basis in the property to "ZERO". So if in ten years you sell the property, you will be taxes on *every* *penny* of your sales price, as your effective cost basis will be ZERO."
This sounds like you are implying that using section 179 changes the cost basis of the entire property - which is much higher that the cost of this improvement - to zero. If that is true it's a game changer but i don't see how that is possible or where that is documented. Do you mean the cost basis of that specific improvement?
