Am I missing something or is there a contradiction in the above article? (Third paragraph) "However, since you sold the property, what matters here is the fair market value (FMV) of the property '''on the day it was deeded to you'''." vs (Fifth paragraph) "The bottom line is that if you inherit property and later sell it, you pay capital gains tax based only on the value of the property '''as of the date of death'''." Thank you for any clarification!
