@TomD8 wrote:
@Opus 17 wrote:
"That means that if you file separately ("married filing separately"), either spouse can deduct the mortgage interest and property taxes, even if only one spouse paid them."
However, the IRS says: "However, if only one of you is eligible for a deduction for an expense (for example, real estate taxes on a property owned only by the eligible spouse), only the spouse who is eligible for the deduction is allowed to claim it, even if the expense is paid from joint funds."
https://www.irs.gov/faqs/itemized-deductions-standard-deduction/other-deduction-questions/other-dedu...
I know, but there are so many other cases where marriage "imparts" ownership of a house to the other spouse, that I think that is a bad example on the part of the IRS. Or it is at least unclear to me. And especially if the home is purchased during the marriage, rather than brought into the marriage.
