That's what i would like to know as well. The way it computes essentially taxes me on my own non-resident 9-5 income according the the 511NR that is generated. I find that to be complete BS that a state in which I spent money in, then won back (or vice-versa) can then tax me on my own income from a different state. Doesn't add up. Sounds like if they want to do people dirty this way, then need to withhold state taxes when the gambling winnings are paid. They are basically robbing people if this is how things end up...why would ANYONE want to gamble in their state?
