Thanks for the responseI I’m having trouble seeing why this would be the case. The wash sale rule is meant to prevent you from claiming a loss by repurchasing shares in the same company either 30 days before or after. In this case, the buy in the Roth was opened and completely closed (0 shares remain) so why would that prevent me from buying and selling the same stock ten days later in a taxable account and claiming the loss? It would definitely be a wash sale if I still owned the shares in the Roth and tried to take the loss in the taxable account ten days later but in this case I didn’t own any shares in the Roth before opening and closing in the taxable account. I believe this is why the first responder to the question said it’s likely not a wash sale. Thanks again for helping!!
