And then even more confusion:
If I use an online calculator at https://www.costbasistools.com/spinoff/calculator.php and enter the following values:
Line 4: Purchase date of original stock: 12/1/2009
Line 8: Number of shares of original stock: 227
Line 9: Total cost of original shares: 6356 (227 shares * $28/share)
Line 10: Cash in Lieu received: $8.18
Line 11: Tax Status: 2 (taxable)
Line 12: Market value of share received on date of distribution: $26.38 (from form 8937, closing price of Kyndryl on 11/4/2021)
That form calculates cost basis of the fractional .4 share at $10.55, which means that the $8.18 represents a loss of $2.37. So it seems like that calculator is somehow saying the cost basis of the share is based on the market value at the time of distribution, not the 2009 value of 4.18% of my original IBM shares?
