I'm in the same boat as Gaypana - we got $8.18 cash in lieu for .4 shares of Kyndryl. If my original cost basis for IBM shares was let's say $28, I'm confused as to why my cost for those .4 shares is .4 * $28. Wouldn't the cost basis be .4 * whatever I calculated my Kyndryl cost basis to be per share using the calculations in form 8937 as the original poster talked about?
And then does this count as a long or short term transaction if I got the original IBM shares back in like 2009?
Thanks for helping to clear up my confusion!
