JohnB5677:
"If lot 2 was purchased within 30 days BEFORE or AFTER."
This is the very first I've noticed that "BEFORE," too. I'm incredibly slow, never thinking it might be the case.
You're an expert, and thus you must be right. Allow me a work-thru example:
The following all happening in a September of the same year:
In September, on the 5th, 10th and 15th, on each day I buy10 shares IBM then sell 2 days later, in all cases they're a gain. On September 25th I buy 10 IBM again but sell 2 days later at a loss.
The buy of September 25th is therefore a wash sale, right? And any one of the buys of the 5th, 10th and 15th could have triggered it alone? Thanks in advance.
