Hi,
I have the same question about how the Adj/Pref value in Form 4562 was calculated.
In my case, Line 1 in Schedule 2 is $0/empty. Line 11 in Form 6251 is $0. This means I do not own AMT, right?
Why depreciation amount was adjusted then? And when depreciation amount was increased, this will increase the expense and reduce the rental net income. Can not understand the purpose and logic of depreciation adjustment.
Can someone help me here?
By the way, TurboTax Form Mode is not good at tracing back values. And this is not convenient for users to check the result.
