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I appreciate the reply.

 

So I have no issues with the fact that he did sell the one rental house without electing to report it as a installment sale 6252, just trying to figure out do I need to: A. report the continued payments from the seller financed mortgage like if it was a 6252; B. just the interest in interest income section of the return as the principal was already reported; or C. because he reported the full sale price including anticipated interest, not have a need to report the income somewhere in his final personal and the estate's income taxes.

 

The house I sold that he passed away in is already accounted for in the taxes I have prepared so far. I just need to figure out the requirements to input the payments for the one he sold before his death.

 

(It's not a big enough of an estate to have to worry about estate tax.)