Have a weird situation (atleast I feel) and I am not sure how and if I should remove wash sale amount and what cost basis should I use? I have attached the 8949 screenshot of those 2 sales and as I still hold more shares of that ETF, I am not sure how I should proceed. Here's the scenario
I got 580 shares of an ETF on 1/30/20 for 68.86/share making total purchase price of $39939
I got 88 shares of same ETF on 3/12/20 75.57 / share making total purchase price of $6650
I sold 100 shares of that ETF on 3/20/2020 for proceeds of ~$4986, making a loss of ~1900 (see screenshot)
I sold 206 shares of that ETF on 7/21/2020 for proceeds of ~123560, making a gain of ~296(see screenshot)
I got dividends and got more shares allocated of that ETF on 3/26, 6/25, 9/24, 12/24. I still own 583.72 shares of that ETF. Broker has reported both those sales of 1/30 & 7/21 individually and not allowing me to take the loss. What cost basis should I use ?
Can I remove these individual 8949 transactions from TT and put a single summary transaction or do I report individually?
Do I change the individual 3/20 sale transaction basis in Box 1e and do I delete the disallowed wash sale amount from box 1g? OR i n the less common adjustment screen, I select "cost basis on my stmt is incorrect " and enter there?
What cost basis should I use and where?
Thanks in advance.
