Thank you so much.. not to get into too much detail my husband own with family. He owns 30 percent. We don't see the books at all but my husband is not complaining about his ordinary income amount at this point and just trying to keep the oiece( it's been a long hard road and I know many may not agree but it's just easier).
Anyhow I was asking as the 16d is roughly 200k higher than the ordinary income and wasn't sure. So if I'm understanding, if his shares still show 30 percent on k1 and the 16d number increases, it's that number payable to my husband when he dissolves his share of the company?
