I have this situation. Is there nowhere I need to indicate that this is not a sale of stock, but rather a complete liquidation of the REIT with a cash distribution to me? Perhaps the IRS doesn't care about the label? Also, to piggyback on the original question and answer: when entering the "total purchase price," is it fair to say I should reduce that by the annual return of investment? I understand that normally you don't reduce your basis by annual dividends, but I did get a "Tax Capital Statement" analysis letter from the company that indicated that I should do so. Not sure why.
