pk
Level 15
Level 15

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@jyee315 , thank you for your answers and explanation behind what you are planning.

(a) My simple and considered position always is  keep it simple. Instead of getting our knickers in a twist and try to cover all possible questions, it would be better to first  decide is this a gift or not. 

    If the whole purpose is to  buy a property for your own usage,  then the monies transferred is only a means towards  ownership & usage.  This is not a gift.

     There are quite a few cases ( some even in case law  ) where a  person, for credit history etc. reasons, decides to buy a property, using a friend/relative as the legal owner  and  therefore mortgagor, lives on the property, pays the mortgage and property taxes --- equitable ownership.  IRS challenged the claim for mortgage interest & prop-tax and lost -- because the "facts and circumstances " proved that the despite the title and loan docs. , it was always understood to be a "by and for the equitable owner" property. 

So what I understand  from your case is that  you are funding the purchase, using your "relative" as token/ stand-in owner ( in name only ) -- just as if a trust was holding the title  to satisfy the local laws/conditions/ restrictions  ( as in Mexico  through "fideicomiso" , with 100 year lease terms -- an instrument to achieve ownership / usage/ transfer rights  while complying with local ownership restrictions).

(b)  Your quote on tax liability for "gifts" to a NRA spouse is true  and the reasoning is in the last sentence.  I do not believe this is a gift because all you and your spouse are doing is using  spouse's  ( Note that for tax purposes , your spouse is NOT NRA -- immigration status  notwithstanding --- he/she is paying taxes as a "Resident for Tax purposes"-- MFJ) foreign bank account as a money transfer conduit.  At the end of the say you both own the asset that you are purchasing, for joint ownership / usage/ transfer rights etc.

For the transfer to be a gift, the acquired asset would have to be solely owned by the spouse  and  hopefully  so documented legally through some kind of post nuptial agreement.

 

IMHO -- treat this transfer for what it is, a money transfer to an agent in Canada for the purchase of an asset in Canada.  Therefore there is no US tax impact.

 

Is there more i can do for you ?