Thanks VolvoGirl... What you say is what I'm learning elsewhere as well... But I guess my question comes down to "WHY" the IRS wants us to take out an RMD in the first place... It's my belief they compel RMD's at a certain age because they want us to pay tax on that money... There is NO RMD requirement on say ROTH accounts and I get why, because that money has already had taxes paid when the money was first invested... But I contend for my tax deferred (before tax) money, they are seeking TAXES and I would think they would want to say we want you to take out an amount of money for an RMD that is 100% BEFORE TAX... You and others are telling me it's not that way and so I get it but I'm one of those types that likes to understand why... Still seems to me that the sole purpose for RMD's is to get tax revenue into the IRS so what's in it for them if they allow me to have part of my RMD be money on which the IRS gets nothing??? Does that make sense??? I get that I'm not likely phrasing the question very well... So I'm sort of ok with saying "OK, I've met the requirement for taking out the correct amount for my RMD"... Check... But I still don't get the part about why the IRS should be ok with me only having say 98% of the money be BEFORE TAX... I mean what if it was say 50% BEFORE TAX and the other 50% AFTER TAX... They would only get half of the tax money I believe the RMD formula was really intended to grant them... But they're ok with that??? I get the numbers... Just not the IRS reasoning... Thoughts on that??? Sorry I'm being complicated but I'm just trying to understand... My first year at RMD's... thanks for the help...
