Thanks for your help. I had seen this passage online and my interpretation was similar to what you suggest: that in my case the amount should be last California capital gains tax reported less any of the gains that I would have offset had I been a resident.
Since my California capital loss carryover was the same as my federal one the last time I filed and since I've continued to draw down on my federal capital loss carryover during this time, the two amounts (federal and CA loss carryover) should be equivalent -- is that correct?
