Thanks for the answer but I am confused.
What you are saying is that if I had sold my mineral rights then I would have had to pay Federal taxes on my profit but since I lost my mineral rights because they essentially were taken away from me without my knowledge by a state law that was passed in a state I do not live in and was never notified about, I have no ability to deduct the value of those lost mineral rights on my federal tax form. Is that correct?
