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It is not a "Wash Sale"; however, the cost basis of the asset needs to be adjusted to account for a disallowed loss that occurred as a result of the purchase of (some or all) of the asset. It is the purchase of an asset that causes the loss on the sale of a similar asset to be disallowed. What happens to the disallowed loss? It does not disappear. It attaches itself to the newly purchased asset as an adjustment to the cost basis. The adjustment is inverse (opposite) of the original Wash Sale adjustment. Stop thinking about it as a Wash Sale with a gain. It is the sale of stock at a gain with an adjustment (a reduction) to the cost basis. The adjustment is a Wash Sale adjustment, but the transaction is not a Wash Sale.
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March 4, 2025
5:58 PM