Each of the past several years I have converted some of my traditional IRA to a Roth. Each year the taxed basis of the traditional IRA was reduced by a small amount and most of the conversion was taxable. This year TTax used all of the taxed basis in the conversion and this decreased my tax liability unexpectedly (ie messed up my tax planning). I'm wondering if there is some change in the tax code that caused TTax to use all my taxed basis in the conversion or might it be related to having reached the RMD stage of life? Any insights appreciated.
Scott
