pk
Level 15
Level 15

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@sorrytale , my initial reaction is  that this is a case of "mark-to-Market" scenario.

 Thus you comply with the Canadian requirement  of "deemed sale" / "Mark-to -Market" and settle the tax consequence thereof.  And then for the US purpose you do the same -- thus you have foreign source income ( computed under US laws, recovery of   depreciation under US laws,  Capital gains tax etc. all taken care of .  And thus you have foreign source income, foreign taxes eligible  for  FTC treatment.

 

This also means that your basis  in the property for future  disposal ( at least in the US case and logically for Canadian case ) is now FMV.

This is generally what happens ( in  US case ) for  US  persons ( GreenCard/ residents for tax purposes )  considered  long-term residents and when they  give up residency  and leave the country -- US collects the taxes on a mark-to market basis.

 So what gets in the way of this path --   1. you mentioned something about NYS taxes/situation; 2. anything in the tax code ?; 3. something else ?

As I see  this , both Canada and US federal  each get their share of the taxes ( had you actually sold  the asset ).  Unless of course there is loss in the "deemed" transaction.

 

Please tell me more  ( or PM me ) with more details as to why you would not want to do this.

 

pk