Please consider these 2 scenarios and tell me if a wash sale has occurred and the proper handling...
Scenario A:
I purchase 300 shares XYZ for $80 each for a total cost of $24,000 on Feb 1.
I sell 100 shares XYZ for $60 each on Feb 15, generating $6000 cash. At least on paper I absorbed a $2000 loss on those shares I just sold. Not sure, but I believe the loss will have to be pushed forward until I sell the remaining shares. The basis for the remaining 200 shares will increase from $80 to $90 (= $2000) as balancing offset. Can you confirm?
Scenario B:
I purchase 300 shares XYZ for $80 each for a total cost of $24,000 on Feb 1.
I sell all 300 shares XYZ for $60 each on Feb 15, generating $18,000 cash.
I no longer hold any position in any account of XYZ
Am I able to claim the $6000 loss immediately? Or do wash rules apply?
