Is a payout from owning stock due to a merger treated any differently than as if one had sold the stock themselves regarding capital gains/loss?
More specifically, my wife held RSA stock in her company which was taken over by another company. The other company paid my wife a specific price for each share she held as RSA when the merger closed. (There was no transfer of stock from one company to the other. It was an all cash deal.)
Is this transaction treated any differently than as if my wife sold the stock herself? That is, the cost basis of the stock held can be used to determine capital gains/loss?
