@MLP_Banana i agree with @dmertz basically the Roth IRA sold the investment for FMV on the date of distribution, which, since it is tax exempt, produces no tax consequence for it and none for you since the Roth had been established for the requisite period. If it had been a regular IRA you would have a taxable distribution (FMV). In any case your basis is now the FMV on date of distribution. Hopefully the K-1 will properly reflect the transfer. your k-1 should show zero beginning capital and capital contributed the same as the FMV unless you buy more shares.
