I read that a few times, not able to fully make sense of it as a non-tax-professional. My best interpretation is that dmertz's vote is that when I sell the shares, the cost basis is not the cost that I paid for the shares. The cost basis is the value on the day they were removed from the Roth IRA. Or put another way: dmertz agrees with Mike, disagrees with TD brokerage & fanfare. I think.
