My situation is a total disposition at a capital loss (and sadly with a hefty ordinary gain that is larger than the capital loss).
Is it true that I can enter the $8 brokerage fee associated with the sale of my MLP interest as "selling expenses"? Following the other instructions on this page, this generates a "box C" copy of form 8949 showing a basis and capital loss equal to that expense. Is this what's supposed to happen?
The basis on my 1099-B is slightly more favorable than that reported on the K-1 Sales Schedule. A tax accountant suggested I could use the 1099-B basis instead of K-1. Is this correct/legal? TT seems to have populated 8949 using the unreported 1099-B basis anyway, but to be accurate I think I need to override 8949 to enter the K-1 basis, then enter an adjustment for the 1099-B figure. Does that sound right? Or can I just leave it as is?
