@nexchap, Thanks for the missing piece of the TT puzzle, using the inverse of Ordinary Gain as cost basis. For partial dispositions, I see using inverse of Ordinary Gain as cost basis allows the full ordinary gain to be completely offset by passive losses(when available) on the 1040. This was not happening when I was using zero as cost basis, it was only partially offsetting Ordinary Gain while calculating some capital (loss) to sch d. . For full dispositions(a complete disposition checked), are you still using inverse as cost basis? thanks.
