Around 2000, my wife and I purchased a piece of property on which we put a manufactured home for my in-laws to live in. The total cost of investment was about $220,000 for both property and manufactured home. Her father was a pastor with limited income and eventually retired from the ministry having only social security income. We supported them as they lived in our "2nd house" by sending them money for repairs, etc. over the years. It wasn't a "rental." There were never any payments to us for rent, nor did we calculate depreciation during the past 20+ years. We'd visit often, staying overnight and sometimes for a week at a time for upkeep and to make necessary repairs. Over the past 20 years, we were at the house maybe a total of between 600 and 800 days.... it's difficult to calculate exactly how many trips we actually made to "visit."
This past tax year, my in-laws moved into our home and we sold the house for a gross amount of $300,000. After calculating all costs for sale and upkeep and repairs over the years, there was probably a net gain of about $50,000. If I understand some of the tax rules correctly, we would have needed to have spent a certain amount of time in the home to qualify for it to be our "2nd home." If true, I'm not sure what that required number of days would be to "qualify." My question... since it wasn't our "primary residence," but a "2nd home" and it wasn't used as a rental for income, do we need to pay a tax on the $50,000 gain? Second question... IF a required amount of time staying with my in-laws IS required to eliminate the federal tax, must we have a record supporting each time we traveled to spend an overnight in the house, or can we estimate that figure and the IRS would have to show otherwise, were we to be audited?
Thank you
