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New Member
posted Jun 1, 2019 10:26:42 AM

Trust sells property. Why if the distribution is done as a % there is no cap gain on the K-1, but if distribution is specific amount there is a cap gain on the K-1?

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1 Replies
Level 15
Jun 1, 2019 10:26:43 AM

"Why if the distribution is done as a % there is no cap gain on the K-1...?"

That is sort of a quirk in the program which happens occasionally (and randomly). 

You can almost always get the distribution to flow through to the K-1(s) when entering a distribution amount but distribution percentages sometimes fail initially.