Hi - Hoping someone can help me. Here is my situation
1) I had interest from Foreign (India) Banks in all of 2025 that had TDS (tax deducted at source). I have disclosed this in Interest & Dividends - Interest on 1099 (although ii dont have 1099).
2) I sold my Indian rental property in April 2025. I disclosed this information in the Rental Properties & Royalities including 2 months of rent i had on this property. It appears the information has made its way to the Sale of Business Property
3) Where i am struggling is the Foreign Tax Credit.
1) Do u want deduction or tax credit - Take a credit
2) Reporting Foreign Taxes Paid - continue
3) where did u receive interest income from - India
4) income from foreign countries - India
5) Report Income - Select the Interest reported in 1099-INT section
6) Foreign Source Income - Your reported x of total interest. how much was from India - I entered x (all of it)
7) Do u want to review your entries (already done) - No
😎 First Year you are eligible ? - Not sure what I pick . I didnt pick this last year. For now I picked - I Chose not to use this selection in 2024 or earlier
9) Other calculation
10) Completing Forms 1116 - Continue
11) Passive Income - > India -> Other Gross Income- Enter Income not in 1099-INT/DIV/2555/K1. Do i enter the capital gain that was reported in Sales of Business Property ? For now I did
12) Definitely Related Expenses - Added all expenses related to Legal/Travel/Repairs etc - Adjustment against Gross income
13) No Foreign Losses
14) Foreign Taxes Paid - No, I have foreign taxes paid on rental, etc
15) Entered value of Foreign taxes on other income and Date paid.
16) AMT - India. Not sure what to enter . left it blank - please advise
17) This is where i am getting lost. Now it is asking me for Foreign qualified dividends/LT Capital Gains - Total Foreign Income (Interest Income + Gains from sale of property). What do I enter forForeign qualified dividends/LT Capital Gains - Should be it the full amount or only the amount of Gains from sale of property
After all this when i see form 1116, the information seems to be incorrect. Thanks for all ur help.
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some additional info - I looked at the foreign tax credit computation worksheet and on 1k - There is a signifcant adjustment required for QD/LTCG (almost 60%). Is this correct ? As a result a lot of the credit is carryover to 2026.
Since you have both interest and a property sale, you are dealing with Passive Category Income, but the tax rate differences between "ordinary income" (interest) and "capital gains" (property sale) are likely what's causing the confusing math on your Form 1116.
Here is a breakdown of these specific "stuck" points:
You noticed a significant adjustment (about 60%) on your worksheet. This is correct. Because U.S. capital gains are taxed at lower rates (0%, 15%, or 20%) than ordinary income (up to 37%), the IRS requires you to "scale down" your foreign capital gains. If they didn't, you would get a "windfall" credit by using high-tax foreign rates to offset low-tax U.S. rates.
The adjustment essentially converts your capital gain into an "ordinary income equivalent."
For 2025, if you are in the 15% capital gains bracket, the multiplier is often around 0.4054 (which explains why your income seems to "shrink" by about 60% on the form).
If you have a large carryover to 2026, it usually means:
High Indian Tax: India's TDS on property sales or interest might be higher than your effective U.S. tax rate on that same income.
The Limitation: You can only claim a credit up to the amount of U.S. tax you would have paid on that specific foreign income. Any "excess" tax paid to India stays in a "bucket" to be used in future years (up to 10 years).
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