I own two rental properties 100% - a single family home in Ohio and land in PA. The Ohio property generated a significant loss and the PA property generated significant income. I get that the loss (if by itself) would be disallowed as passive . . . but can't I net it with the other property? Why not?
Thanks in advance!
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Land is in a strange category thanks to, among other things, Section 1.469-2T.
A loss on the rental of land is a passive loss, but a net profit from the rental of land is nonpassive income, the latter of which cannot be offset by passive losses.
Just a wild guess here, but I'm guessing that one is residential rental real estate, and the other is business rental real estate. Is that so?
Land is in a strange category thanks to, among other things, Section 1.469-2T.
A loss on the rental of land is a passive loss, but a net profit from the rental of land is nonpassive income, the latter of which cannot be offset by passive losses.
Thank you so much for your help, Carl. I believe Tagteam found the right answer . . . it doesn't look like I can net them . . . boo! 😀
Thank you so much Tagteam. I read through the offending Reg Sec and regrettably (at least for my pocketbook) I agree with you. Nonetheless, I do appreciate the quick help.
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