My point was that the same result would obtain either way; the lender is not repaid.
Also, to the best of my knowledge, the rule that exists is the "ability to repay", which makes sense because a borrower could have the absolute best intentions and be more than willing to repay the debt, but that debt cannot be repaid if the borrower does not have the means to do so.
See https://www.consumerfinance.gov/ask-cfpb/what-is-the-ability-to-repay-rule-why-is-it-important-to-me...
