I understand, but in what timeframe? I refinanced in 2011 and took cash out at that time due to a divorce...I had to pay my ex-husband his share of the equity. The new loan (origination date of 11/20/2011) is in my name only, which is an "original loan" with the buyer being only me. My understanding of the tax law is that this is allowable and I can still claim the full mortgage interest. Is that correct?
